Shayla: Does the word “homosexual” appear in the original Bible languages? I don’t believe that it does, and thus it is all right to practice.

Meforshim:

To justify one’s self by saying that the specific English word “homosexual” or “homosexuality” is not in the original language is a fatuous argument. For that matter, MOST of the words we use today do not have a one-to-one correlation in either Hebrew or Greek. But the same could be said of many modern languages. Each language expresses its concepts in different ways depending on the world view of the culture that created it.

The word “cigarette” doesn’t appear in the Bible either – is that a valid argument to smoke cigarettes? Even when a word doesn’t appear specifically in the Scriptures, there are more than enough basic principles that will help us determine whether or not they are healthy practices.

To say that “homosexuality” does not appear in the original is to reveal that one doesn’t have a grasp of the depths to which the scriptural authors held that particular sin in contempt. Modern languages have chosen to use a more neutral, Latin based word which basically describes the act “homo- sexual”, i.e. “sex with another like me”. This reveals our bias toward the sin.

The word/concept “homosexual” does in fact appear in the Bible in:

• 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 HCSB (9) Do you not know that the unjust will not inherit God's kingdom? Do not be deceived: no sexually immoral people, idolaters, adulterers, male prostitutes, homosexuals, (10) thieves, greedy people, drunkards, revilers, or swindlers will inherit God's kingdom.
• 1 Timothy 1:9-11 HCSB We know that the law is not meant for a righteous person, but for the lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinful, for the unholy and irreverent, for those who kill their fathers and mothers, for murderers, (10) for the sexually immoral and homosexuals, for kidnappers, liars, perjurers, and for whatever else is contrary to the sound teaching (11) based on the glorious gospel of the blessed God that was entrusted to me.

The word the Bible uses here is ἀρσενοκοίτης (Strong’s #733; pronounced arsenokoitase) and is defined as, “a male who engages in sexual activity with a person of his own sex - a “pederast.” The fact that it literally means “an abuser of themselves with men” is telling.

Compare that with the clear description in:

• Romans 1:27 HCSB The males in the same way also left natural sexual intercourse with females and were inflamed in their lust for one another. Males committed shameless acts with males and received in their own persons the appropriate penalty for their perversion.

The Bible clearly is indicating a “a male partner in homosexual intercourse – homosexual.” The Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (BDAG) says “…It is possible that ἀρσενοκοίτης in certain contexts refers to the active male partner in homosexual intercourse in contrast with μαλακός, the passive male partner.” The distinction being that having the sexual temptation may be understandable and forgivable. But as with all other sins, being tempted and actively practicing the sin are two separate things. The NET Bible follows that distinction by adding the word “practicing” to homosexual in 1 Corinthians 6:9.

The Bible’s clear statement that any man who unrepentantly practices sex with another man, or a woman who unrepentantly practices sex with another woman will not inherit the kingdom of God simply cannot be gotten around – even if you could deny the argument presented by ἀρσενοκοίτης.

See also: Genesis 18:20-21; 19:4-5, 24-25; Leviticus 18:22; 20:13; Judges 19:22; Romans 1:18-32; 2 Peter 2:4-10; Jude 6-7